lower share to vs lower share to variance

These two phrases are not directly comparable as they serve different purposes. 'Lower share to' is incomplete and lacks context, while 'lower share to variance' provides more information by specifying what is being lowered. To make a meaningful comparison, 'lower share to' should be completed with a specific target or comparison point.

Last updated: March 19, 2024 • 596 views

This phrase is incomplete and lacks context. It does not convey a clear meaning on its own.

"lower share to "

To make this phrase correct and meaningful, it should be completed with a specific target or comparison point. For example, 'lower share to 20%' or 'lower share to match the industry average.'

Show examples from the web [+]

paid and a lower share to ordinary workers. The second paper, by Rebecca Riley , Chiara Rosazza-. Bondibene and Garry Young, investigates whether the poor ...
Jun 18, 2015 ... The DI issue is easy to fix, if Congress wants to, by reallocating the payroll tax split and giving a higher share to DI and a lower share to OASI.
Both parameters of linear regression are also highly statistically signiﬁcant. ' Data come in two clusters, with the cluster of lower share to labor representing years.
tenants may bargain an honest lower share to be paid to the landlord against a dishonest higher share. Respecting norms of fairness is important in deterring ...

This phrase is correct and specifies that the share is being lowered in relation to variance, providing a clear context.

"lower share to variance"

This phrase is used when describing a decrease in share relative to variance, indicating a change in the distribution or allocation of resources.

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lower share to vs lower share to variance

"lower share to "

"lower share to variance"

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