"Does not sem to have" vs "seems not to have"

Question

"Does not sem to have" vs "seems not to have"

Both "seems not to have" and "does not seem to have" are correct constructions in English. They are used to express doubt or uncertainty about something. The choice between them depends on personal preference or the overall tone of the sentence.

Last Updated: March 29, 2024

This phrase is used to indicate a lack of certainty about something. It is often used when the speaker is unsure about a particular situation or outcome.

Examples:

It does not seem to have rained today.
She does not seem to have received my message.
The project does not seem to have been completed on time.

Alternatives:

seems not to have
appears not to have
looks like it does not have
is unlikely to have
is doubtful that it has

This phrase is used to indicate a lack of certainty about something. It is often used when the speaker is unsure about a particular situation or outcome.

Examples:

It seems not to have rained today.
She seems not to have received my message.
The project seems not to have been completed on time.

Alternatives:

does not seem to have
appears not to have
looks like it does not have
is unlikely to have
is doubtful that it has

Answer 1

Does not sem to have

This phrase is correct and commonly used in English to express doubt or uncertainty.

Answer 2

seems not to have

This phrase is correct and commonly used in English to express doubt or uncertainty.

"Does not sem to have" vs "seems not to have"

Does not sem to have

seems not to have

Related Comparisons