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"none of us have" vs "none of us has"

Both 'none of us has' and 'none of us have' are correct, but they are used in different contexts. 'None of us has' is used when referring to a singular entity within a group, while 'none of us have' is used when referring to a plural entity within a group.

Last Updated: March 26, 2024

none of us have

This phrase is correct when referring to a plural entity within a group.

Use 'none of us have' when referring to a plural entity within a group. For example, 'None of us have decided on a date yet.'

Examples:

  • None of us have any spare change.
  • None of us have seen the movie yet.
  • None of us have been to that restaurant before.

Alternatives:

  • No one among us have
  • Not one of us have

none of us has

This phrase is correct when referring to a singular entity within a group.

Use 'none of us has' when referring to a singular entity within a group. For example, 'None of us has seen the movie yet.'

Examples:

  • None of us has the answer.
  • None of us has any experience in this field.
  • None of us has been to that restaurant before.

Alternatives:

  • No one among us has
  • Not one of us has

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