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"none of them have" vs "none of them has"

Both phrases are correct, but they are used in different contexts. "None of them has" is used when referring to a singular noun or a singular concept, while "none of them have" is used when referring to a plural noun or multiple individuals. It's important to match the verb form with the number of the noun being referred to.

Last Updated: March 23, 2024

none of them have

This phrase is correct when referring to a plural noun or multiple individuals.

Use "none of them have" when the subject is plural, such as "none of them have finished their homework."

Examples:

  • None of them have arrived yet.
  • None of them have the necessary skills.
  • None of them have been to Europe.

Alternatives:

  • Not one of them have
  • No one of them have
  • Not a single one of them have
  • Not any of them have
  • Not a one of them have

none of them has

This phrase is correct when referring to a singular noun or concept.

Use "none of them has" when the subject is singular, such as "none of them has arrived yet."

Examples:

  • None of them has seen the movie.
  • None of them has the key to the door.
  • None of them has any experience in coding.

Alternatives:

  • Not one of them has
  • No one of them has
  • Not a single one of them has
  • Not any of them has
  • Not a one of them has

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