nobody have vs nob0dy has

The correct phrase is "nobody has." The verb "has" should be used with the pronoun "nobody" because "nobody" is a singular pronoun and requires a singular verb form.

Last updated: March 26, 2024 • 742 views

nobody have

This phrase is incorrect. The verb should be in the singular form to match the singular pronoun "nobody."

The correct form is "nobody has." Use the singular form of the verb (has) with the singular pronoun (nobody).

Show examples from the web [+]

Wouldn't nobody have noticed except for maybe... ...Dizzy Gillespie... ...but Dizzy Gillespie is on the road somewhere, far as I know.
Does nobody have a permission that we can use?
Did nobody have an issue with Heaven being a metaphor?
Nobody have seen us, nobody is looking for us!

Some alternatives from our editors:

nobody has
no one has
nobody possesses
nobody holds
nobody owns

nob0dy has

This phrase is correct. The use of "nob0dy has" with the correct spelling of "nobody" and the singular verb "has" is appropriate.

The phrase "nob0dy has" is correct when referring to the absence of possession or action by any individual.

Examples:

Nob0dy has seen the missing keys.
Nob0dy has the answer to that question.
Nob0dy has arrived yet.
Nob0dy has called me back.
Nob0dy has the authority to make that decision.

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nobody have vs nob0dy has

nobody have

nob0dy has

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