most likely to have sweets vs mostly have sweets

Both phrases are correct, but they have slightly different meanings. 'Most likely to have sweets' implies a prediction or probability that someone will have sweets, while 'mostly have sweets' indicates that someone usually or predominantly has sweets. They are not directly comparable as they convey different ideas.

Last updated: March 21, 2024 • 865 views

most likely to have sweets

This phrase is correct and commonly used in English to indicate a prediction or probability that someone will have sweets.

This phrase is used to express the likelihood or probability that a person will possess sweets compared to others.

Examples:

She is the most likely to have sweets at the party.
He is the most likely to have sweets in his bag.
Who do you think is the most likely to have sweets in their office?
Among all the kids, she is the most likely to have sweets in her lunchbox.
In a group of friends, he is the most likely to have sweets in his car.

mostly have sweets

This phrase is correct and commonly used in English to indicate that someone usually or predominantly has sweets.

This phrase is used to describe a person who generally has sweets most of the time or in a majority of situations.

Examples:

They mostly have sweets after dinner.
She mostly has sweets in the evening.
He mostly has sweets when he is stressed.
The kids mostly have sweets during their playtime.
We mostly have sweets during the weekends.

Show examples from the web [+]

Jul 2, 2015 ... I try to mostly have sweets for snack and not dessert but we had been saving fruit (her favorite) for after meals. I will have to try serving it with ...

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most likely to have sweets vs mostly have sweets