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It has been man's imperative vs It is man's imperative

Both phrases are correct, but they are used in different contexts. 'It has been man's imperative' is used when referring to something that was a necessity or requirement in the past, while 'It is man's imperative' is used to express that something is currently a necessity or requirement.

Last updated: March 11, 2024 • 593 views

It has been man's imperative

This phrase is correct and is used when referring to something that was a necessity or requirement in the past.

This phrase is used to indicate that something was a necessity or requirement for mankind in the past.
  • Always, it has been man's imperative to understand how to submit to this Law; and, now it is plain that a Covenant as old as Abraham has been fulfilled through  ...
  • Always, it has been man's imperative to understand how to submit to this Law; and, now it is plain that a Covenant as old as Abraham has been fulfilled through  ...
  • Always, it has been man's imperative to understand how to submit to this Law; and, now it is plain that a Covenant as old as Abraham has been fulfilled through  ...

Alternatives:

  • it was man's imperative
  • it used to be man's imperative

It is man's imperative

This phrase is correct and is used to express that something is currently a necessity or requirement.

This phrase is used to indicate that something is a necessity or requirement for mankind at the present moment.
  • ... those of conscience, which are rights only because it is man's imperative duty to obey its dictates. Our boasted 'inalienable rights of life, liberty, and the pursuit ...

Alternatives:

  • it remains man's imperative
  • it continues to be man's imperative

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