"is known to affect" vs "has been known to affect"

Question

"is known to affect" vs "has been known to affect"

Both phrases are correct, but they are used in slightly different contexts. "Is known to affect" is used to state a general fact or truth, while "has been known to affect" is used to indicate a specific past action or event.

Last Updated: March 29, 2024

This phrase is used to indicate that something is recognized or acknowledged to have an effect on something else.

Examples:

Smoking is known to affect your health.
Lack of sleep is known to affect cognitive function.
Excessive sugar consumption is known to affect your weight.
Climate change is known to affect global weather patterns.
Stress is known to affect mental health.

Alternatives:

is understood to affect
is recognized to affect
is acknowledged to affect
is believed to affect
is proven to affect

This phrase is used to indicate that something was recognized or acknowledged to have had an effect on something else in the past.

Examples:

The new medication has been known to affect patients differently.
The chemical spill has been known to affect the local wildlife.
Her leadership style has been known to affect team morale.
The economic downturn has been known to affect consumer spending.
The policy change has been known to affect company profits.

Alternatives:

has been understood to affect
has been recognized to affect
has been acknowledged to affect
has been believed to affect
has been proven to affect

Answer 1

is known to affect

This phrase is correct and commonly used in English to state a general fact or truth.

Answer 2

has been known to affect

This phrase is correct and commonly used in English to indicate a specific past action or event.

"is known to affect" vs "has been known to affect"

is known to affect

has been known to affect

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