has woman's hands vs has woman's legs

These two phrases are not directly comparable as they refer to different body parts. 'Has woman's hands' is correct when describing someone's hands as being feminine, while 'has woman's legs' is correct when referring to the legs of a woman. Both phrases are grammatically correct in their respective contexts.

Last updated: March 21, 2024 • 763 views

has woman's hands

This phrase is correct when describing someone's hands as being feminine.

This phrase is used to describe hands that are characteristic of a woman, often in terms of appearance or delicacy.

Examples:

She has woman's hands, delicate and graceful.
His fingers were slender and elegant, like a woman's hands.

Show examples from the web [+]

Mar 23, 2010 ... They look like he has woman's hands under those gloves or some other digit deformity that prevents him from holding his pistols snuggly.

has woman's legs

This phrase is correct when referring to the legs of a woman.

This phrase is used to specifically talk about the legs of a woman, often in terms of appearance or characteristics.

Examples:

She has woman's legs, long and slender.
Her dancer's legs were toned and graceful, like a woman's legs.

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has woman's hands vs has woman's legs

has woman's hands

has woman's legs

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