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"has been decreased since 1" vs "has been declined since 1"

Both phrases are grammatically correct, but they are used in different contexts. 'Has been declined since 1' is commonly used when referring to a decrease in value, while 'has been decreased since 1' is more general and can refer to any kind of decrease.

Last Updated: March 17, 2024

has been decreased since 1

This phrase is correct and can be used in a general context to indicate any kind of decrease.

This phrase is used to indicate that something has continuously decreased in value, quantity, or any other aspect since a specific point in time.

Examples:

  • The temperature has been decreased since yesterday.
  • The demand for the product has been decreased since the new model was released.

Alternatives:

  • has been diminishing since 1
  • has been reduced since 1
  • has been lowered since 1
  • has been cut since 1
  • has been on the decrease since 1

has been declined since 1

This phrase is correct and commonly used when referring to a decrease in value.

This phrase is used to indicate that something has continuously decreased in value or quantity since a specific point in time.

Examples:

  • The company's stock price has been declined since the beginning of the year.
  • The number of visitors to the museum has been declined since last month.

Alternatives:

  • has been decreasing since 1
  • has been dropping since 1
  • has been falling since 1
  • has been going down since 1
  • has been on the decline since 1

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