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has been declined since 1 vs has been decreased since 1

Both phrases are grammatically correct, but they are used in different contexts. 'Has been declined since 1' is commonly used when referring to a decrease in value, while 'has been decreased since 1' is more general and can refer to any kind of decrease.

Last updated: March 17, 2024 • 594 views

has been declined since 1

This phrase is correct and commonly used when referring to a decrease in value.

This phrase is used to indicate that something has continuously decreased in value or quantity since a specific point in time.

Examples:

  • The company's stock price has been declined since the beginning of the year.
  • The number of visitors to the museum has been declined since last month.

Alternatives:

  • has been decreasing since 1
  • has been dropping since 1
  • has been falling since 1
  • has been going down since 1
  • has been on the decline since 1

has been decreased since 1

This phrase is correct and can be used in a general context to indicate any kind of decrease.

This phrase is used to indicate that something has continuously decreased in value, quantity, or any other aspect since a specific point in time.

Examples:

  • The temperature has been decreased since yesterday.
  • The demand for the product has been decreased since the new model was released.
  • As you probably have noticed, the development pace of Nautilus-actions has been decreased since 1 year and it is due to a lack of time and motivation from me.
  • Member of Parliament8, which has been decreased since 1 January 2011 in relation to the bad economic situation in the country. Already this legislation is in  ...

Alternatives:

  • has been diminishing since 1
  • has been reduced since 1
  • has been lowered since 1
  • has been cut since 1
  • has been on the decrease since 1

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